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I received a credit warning about a three-month overdue payment on a credit card held by my wife, with me listed as an authorized user. All correspondence regarding the account was sent to my wife’s email, so the credit warning was the first time I became aware of her nonpayment.
The amount owed (including interest) was under $55, so that part is not the issue. My question concerns the credit-card company. Shouldn’t it have sent nonpayment notices to me, as an authorized user, and at least given me an opportunity to pay the bill before notifying me through a negative credit report?